Thread #18429321
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Who was in the right? England or France?
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>>18429321
The capetians were clear, obviously premeditated aggressors with only a flimsy legal facade as a justification, the plantagenets by the standards of the day were absolutely in the right, not only in harbouring whoever they wanted in england and defending gascony but even in claiming the french throne, with the capetian claim being a clear fabrication based on concepts that were not valid in any sense
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>>18429321
In terms of right to rule, the house of Valois had precedent on their side. Edward III's claim to the throne was flimsy and even he knew that.
However, Philip VI revoking Aquitaine and interfering in Scotland had practically no justification, and the English were completely in their right to fight for it.
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>>18431190
>house of Valois had precedent on their side. Edward III's claim to the throne was flimsy
It's the opposite, Edward was rightful claimant, women not inheriting had precedent but that their line couldn't was original and clearly asserted for political reasons
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>>18431368
That’s true, but that doesn’t mean it was necessarily wrong. Edward III’s argument was also advanced for political reasons well after Philip VI has began ruling. And the ultimate problem is that, even if we accept Edward III’s succession logic, he still wouldn’t have the strongest claim. Joan of Navarre’s children would be the rightful rulers of France.
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>>18431190
actual best reply (>>18431374 is a homo)
100 years war started out between two rival houses who were both French, languedoil anyway. England was a vassal of Anjou and Normandy, same as any vassal of Paris was a vassal of that city full of garlicky dog turds.
As to who was in the right, I'm going with Paris (actually). England should have seceded and told all the frogs to fuck off and fight it out amongst themselves.
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>100 years war started out between two rival houses who were both French, languedoil anyway. England was a vassal of Anjou and Normandy
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>England has genuinely never been in the wrong
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>>18431380
>was also advanced for political reasons well after Philip VI
No, it was advanced on Charles IV's death, because Edward was the legitimate inheritor, but it was effectively vetoed by the french nobility at that time
>Joan of Navarre
If you're rejecting things because they weren't present in 1328, she had no sons at that point
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>not an argument
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he was based
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very based, in fact
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>>18432311
>france didn't have any laws about succession
>france didn't base their succession on these laws
>england didn't try to usurp the throne themselves in a way that violated said laws
are you a retard?
I understand others ITT saying the real issue was France meddling with Scotland etc, but you are just lying.
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>>18432294
>>18432452
No, you said England is never right about anything because you’re a butthurt little faggot over things that didn’t happen in your lifetime.
Also, you clearly have no idea what happened, and you have no idea how medieval succession and law worked.
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>>18432577
Succession laws were not set in stone in those times. There was no one way about it, and it really came down to most of the nobility choosing the Valois claimant. But, the war wasn’t started because Edward III wanted the throne. It wasn’t really about the French throne until much later on. It wasn’t caused by “England chimping out” for the French throne. The conflict started like so many between the kings of France and England: disputes over land in France. The French king was trying to assert his authority over Gascony and to take it away from Edward, which was Edward’s most valuable territory. Edward III claimed the throne of France as a political maneuver to gain the support of disgruntled nobles in Flanders and Burgundy. And it worked. At the height of his victories, what did Edward do? He secured his territorial gains and renounced his claim in the 1360 Treaty of Bretigny.
So there’s a refutation, along with what other anons are saying.